One section of this BBC report https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-44919875 on Margaret Hodge's calling Jeremy Corbyn an antisemite and racist caught my eye:
'Labour's code of conduct was drawn up after the 2016 Chakrabarti inquiry. It followed allegations of anti-Semitism within party ranks.
The code does reproduce the International Holocaust Remembrance Alliance's "working definition" of anti-Semitism and lists behaviours likely to be regarded as anti-Semitic - but critics point out that it leaves out four examples provided by the IHRA definition:
Accusing Jewish people of being more loyal to Israel than their home country
Claiming that Israel's existence as a state is a racist endeavour
Requiring higher standards of behaviour from Israel than other nations
Comparing contemporary Israeli policies to those of the Nazis
But Labour has insisted that while the examples are not reproduced word for word, they are covered elsewhere in the new code.'
Some questions that an impartial news organisation would ask a Labour spokesman might include:
Why did Labour include the other examples from the IHRA definitions but not these four?
Are the Labour Party examples stricter than those in the IHRA definitions? If not then why are the Labour Party happy with weaker rules against antisemitism?
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